Throughout this text I could not shake the feeling that it
was very contradictory. The first example of this I noticed was in the third
paragraph. Binkley says, “I use the traditional conceptual terminology of
Aristotelian rhetoric”. Although she uses this terminology, she is attempting
to define parts of the Other, which is contradictory to Aristotelian rhetoric.
This goes back to the conversation we were having in class on Thursday, of how
closely we hold onto an Aristotelian and Greek definition of rhetoric, and how
it forms most of the rhetoric we study and use.
One
question I must ask before I return to more problems I saw with this text is
the part where Binkley on page 48 talks about text that was recorded on clay
tablets instead of on papyrus and vellum. My question, as it says that these
clay tablets were much more permanent than say, papyrus and vellum, is how did
this change the rhetoric recorded on the different mediums? I would think that
the clay must have been much harder to come by and produce. Also if it is more
permanent, were the stakes higher? Were there only important things recorded on
these tablets?
Back to my
idea about how this text was quite contradictory. We see Mesopotamia mentioned
quite a few times. At the end of a section titled, Origins in Assyriology and Rhetoric it is stated, “the fact remains
that neither Mesopotamia nor Enheduanna have anything to do with the formation
of rhetoric nor any relevance to the origins of rhetoric.” (Pg. 54). In the
section just before this one it is stated, “Cuneiform script, writing
characterized by the use of a stylus and crosshatching on clay, developed early
in this area and came to be used for the next three thousand years as the
script for a number of languages.” (Pg. 48).
This seems to be quite problematic in junction with the statement that
Mesopotamia has nothing to do with rhetoric, as cuneiform was created in
Mesopotamia. On top of this, every part of human interaction whether verbal or
non verbal has created more knowledge, therefore becoming part of the narrative
of humanity. With that said, Mesopotamia does in fact certainly matter to the
formation of rhetoric.
Lastly, it
is said that, “The Mesopotamian record particularly Enheduanna, brings into
question many western scholarly assumptions regarding definition of the body,
its materiality, and gendered identity, assumptions that became part of the
western text.” (Pg. 56). If this is true, then this again contradicts the
statement that Mesopotamia and Enheduanna had nothing to do with rhetoric. If
they are a part of western text, or better yet, the western narrative, then
both Mesopotamia and Enheduanna are certainly a part in forming rhetoric.
Overall, I
learned a bit from this text but I mainly just became upset at the
contradictory nature of it.
After the input given in class and reading over these sections again, these different parts make a lot more sense to me. Glad I got this cleared up, the argument now seems a bit more complete.
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